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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 03:46

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

What kind of lights would you like to use for your home decor?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

This is a real question: Why do a lot of men/boys hate (yes, hate) women that voice their criteria in choosing a partner? Even when the criteria is sane and responsible. Besides it being, sadly, an effective mating strategy, why does it exist?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If James Bond is meant to be the best secret agent in the world, how come all the bad guys in the World seem to know who he is?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.